Posted by jd on January 19, 2000, at 23:26:20
In reply to Re: Buspar: dopamine agonist or antagonist? (Eliz?), posted by Scott L. Schofield on January 19, 2000, at 22:09:29
I've always been pretty confused too... My basic sense is that a partial agonist stimulates a given set of receptors, but can never do so to the extent of a full agonist. Thus, if there's lots of agonist around, a partial agonist can sometimes end up working more like an antagonist (by competing with the more powerful agonist).
Neurobiology students feel free to chime in... I'm out of my depth. :-)
-jd
>
> I still can't figure out what is meant by "partial agonist". Any clues?
>
>
> - Scott
poster:jd
thread:19073
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20000112/msgs/19249.html