Posted by jd on January 23, 2000, at 23:52:58
In reply to Re: Buspar: dopamine agonist or antagonist? (Eliz?), posted by anita on January 22, 2000, at 18:53:41
Anita,
Here's perhaps a clue to reducing the confusion-- A dopamine antagonist can still end up increasing dopamine transmission if it specifically antagonizes the dopamine "feedback" receptors called autoreceptors. When these receptors are activated, they in effect tell your system that there's already "enough" dopamine. Antagonize them, and your system is fooled into releasing extra dopamine to compensate. It's a bit like blowing cold air on your thermostat to trick your heater into going on. Can't guarantee that this is an effect of Buspar, but it's a good bet if it's indeed an antagonist (as I believe it to be).
--jd
> Well, I asked my pdoc about this Buspar & dopamine issue, and he said he would say it was more of a dopamine agonist than antagonist (i.e., it generally increases dopamine transmission).
>
> Still confused tho.
>
> anita
>
> > > Does Buspar increase or decrease dopamine, generally speaking? I've seen it labelled as one or the other in Medline -- which is it? If a study says it's a dopamine antagonist, yet goes on to say it increases dopamine in various areas of the brain, does that mean it is an antagonist at dopamine autoreceptors, and thus acts like an agonist?
> > >
> > > Thanks,
> > > anita
> >
> > Good question Anita. And I hope someone can address this in layman terms you and I can understand. These theories have always evaded me regardless of how hard I try to understand.
> >
> > In literature I have seen it stated that Buspar "binds to" D2 dopamine receptors. The net effect of that is a mystery to me. I don't know what it means. Does it increase dopamine transmission? Decrease? Raise dopamine levels? Lower?
> >
> > I have no clue. I hope someone can enlighten us. JohnL
poster:jd
thread:19073
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20000112/msgs/19512.html